EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...


Question List

Question1: In WDM systems, it is ideal to use a dielectric thin problem filter (TFF) when using less than () wavelengths.

Question2: Which of the following logical function modules is used to generate exhaust R-LOS alerts?

Question3: NCE software is deployed in B/5 (browser/server) mode.

Question4: The standard Ethernet frame length should not be less than 64 bytes Which of the following factors contribute to this limitation? (Multiple choice).

Question5: Which of the following is affected by changing the element ID of OSN3500 on NMS?

Question6: SDH is a complete standard digital signal hierarchy that provides____, multiplexing, and cross-connection.
(Enter only lowercase letters.)

Question7: Which of the following is not the advantage of WDM?

Question8: Which of the following layers define the protocols that control the network layer? The protocol for this layer applies to logical links, i.e. end-to-end connectivity between two devices.

Question9: Which of the following bytes can be used for ordenwire calls between two REG devices?

Question10: Which of the following alarm/event storage modes does U2000 support? (Multiple choice).

Question11: The AAC address consists of 46 bits and is globally unique
Which of the following - is the meaning of the eighth-digit MAC address with 1?

Question12: According to the formula "ODUk rate = 239/(239k) x STMN frame rate", ODU4 The rate is equal to 239
/235× STMN frame rate.

Question13: U2000 can flexibly interconnect with different third-party network administrators through the Northbound Interface (NBI) and provide physical inventory and alarm information for the upper-layer network management.

Question14: Which of the following is not an EVPLAN feature?

Question15: The TNG1N401 board supports hybrid transmission of multiple ODUk granularities.

Question16: Which of the following is the difference between an AU pointer and a TU pointer? (Multiple choice).

Question17: Which of the following statements about the advantages of OTN are incorrect?

Question18: Which of the following statements about the clock source are incorrect?

Question19: For OSN3500, there is a slot mapping relationship between the processing board and the interface pre-processor. The processing board in slot 1 maps to the interface board in slots 19-20.

Question20: Which of the following light sources has the best dispersion tolerance and stability?

Question21: According to the formula "ODUk rate = 239/(239k) x STM-N frame rate", ODU4 The rate is equal to the 239
/235xSTM-N Pa rate.

Question22: When the ACT indicator of the SDH board is off, it means that the board has a hardware failure and cannot be used.

Question23: The rate of STM-0 is 51.84 Mbtt/s.

Question24: OSN1500/2500/3500/7500 supports DC and AC power inputs.

Question25: When using the LCAS function, which of the following overhead bytes is used to transmit control information? (Multiple Choices)

Question26: Both PDH and SDH have globally harmonized standards.

Question27: Which of the following different types of ESC are divided according to the principles of implementation?
(Multiple choice)

Question28: Which of the following statements about the MSP ring is correct? (Multiple choice).

Question29: There are 48 bits in MAC address. The first ( ) bits make up a unique identifier for the vendor and the last ( ) bits are allocated by the vendor

Question30: After signals are transmitted for a certain distance in a WDM system, the optical signal-to-noise ratio (OSNR) at the receive end decreases to a certain extent. Which of the following Is the main cause?

Question31: Which of the following is the multiplexing method of SDH?

Question32: In WDM systems, it is ideal to use a dielectric thin film filter (TFF) when using less than () wavelengths.

Question33: The SP3D board supports 63 E1 services

Question34: In a WDM system, when the number of wavelengths is greater than ( ), the arrayed waveguide grating (AWG) is recommended.

Question35: Which of the following is the frame indicated by the VC-4 J1 byte by the AU pointer of the current frame?

Question36: Automatic Laser Shutdown (ALS): When no optical signal is received, the ALS function automatically turns off the corresponding optical module. This feature protects field maintenance personnel.

Question37: When configuring the SXCS single board for the OSN3500, which of the following is the access package of the fully configured substand?

Question38: In the Windows operating system, the log files of the U2000 program are stored in the () directory of the U2000 installation disk.

Question39: Bait-doped fiber amplifiers (EDFAs) are a key component of the new generation of optical communication systems. Which of the following is the feature of EDFA? Multiple Choice)

Question40: QinQ technology can be used when multiple users need to share the same VCTRUK and use the same VLAN ID.

Question41: When using a script to back up U2000 data, the backup speed is fast because the backup file is small.

Question42: Which of the following communication protocols are used for DCN management of Huawei devices?
(Multiple choice).

Question43: Which of the following is the main networking type of a transmission network?

Question44: When the J1 byte does not match, an alarm () is reported and the service may be interrupted.

Question45: Two PIU or APIU boards of an OpCXtrans E6616/OptiX OSN 1800V Pro are used to supply power for the system In hot backup mode. When either of the two PIU or APIU boards is faulty, the system can still function properly.

Question46: EPL services use bandwidth exclusively on the line, which is very safe. Dedicated line applications for VIP customers

Question47: Which of the following is the main advantage of SDH? (Multiple choice).

Question48: Which of the following are the service board types for MSTP devices? (Multiple choice).

Question49: Which of the following statements about basic LCAS functionality are correct? (Multiple choice).

Question50: STM-64 has an () AU pointer.

Question51: For osn3500, which of the following boards provides centralized backup capability for the +3.3V power supply of each board in the sub-shelf?

Question52: In the frame structure of the SDH signal, there are large overhead bytes for operation, management, and maintenance (OAM). Overhead bytes account for all bits () of the entire frame and greatly enhance the monitoring capabilities of the network.

Question53: Which of the following statements about the MST functional module is correct? (Multiple choice).

Question54: When setting up LCAS mode, follow these principles:
1. If both ends of the device are Huawei devices, please set it to "Standard Mode".
2. If a Huawei device is interconnected with a third-party device, set the interconnect device to the same mode according to the mode supported by the third-party device.

Question55: For alignment; Indicates the starting position of VC-n in the corresponding AU or TU frame. * This way: The receiver can correctly remove the corresponding VC from STM-N, and then The VC and C packages are separated into separate low-rate signals, such as PDH, which means that the low-rate path signal can be dropped directly from the STM-N signal.

Question56: Configuring the EPLAN service as a ring is not recommended. If the EPLAN service is configured as a ring network, the STP protocol must be enabled on the network to prevent broadcast storms.

Question57: Which of the following is not an optical-layer board?

Question58: Which of the following is photolayer tracking? (Multiple Choices)

Question59: During service configuration, there are two time slot modes. Huawei uses interleaved time slot mode by default.

Question60: According to ITU-T's recommendations, the requirement that the MSP switching time should be within 50ms is conditional. For example, the number of net elements on the entire ring network is less than 16.

Question61: Coherent receiver technology uses a local oscillator laser with the same frequency as the received signal to perform coherent processing and recover () information from the received signal. (Multi-quality selection.)

Question62: The clock unit can only access the external clock source as the timing signal source of the system through the external clock interface. In addition; It can also output a processed clock and provide a clock source for other devices that need timing.

Question63: Compared with dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM) systems, crude glass division multiplexing (CWDM) systems provide a certain amount of glass length and transmission distance within (kmkm), which greatly reduces system cost and has strong flexibility

Question64: On the NMS system, the network element performance monitoring time is set to () minutes and () hours.

Question65: Which of the following is not a basic component of a WDM system?

Question66: SES: There are 5% or more of the False blocks or at least one defect (OCI/AIS/LCK/IAE/LTC/TIM/PLM) in one second.

Question67: Which of the following statements about the sequence of a signal flow between the SDH interface and the cross-connect unit is true?

Question68: In Recommendation ITU-T G.692, the allowable channel frequencies are based on the reference frequency (), and the channel spacing can be 100 GHz, 50 GHz or 25 GHz.

Question69: LCK insertion takes precedence over AIS insertion. That is, if the user configures LCK insertion and the conditions for automatic AS insertion are met, the LCK is inserted.

Question70: The optical amplifier unit compensates for line losses and extends the transmission distance. Connecting multiple optical amplifier units in cascaded mode allows for extended transmission distances without following the system.

Question71: The working mode of the port determines the flow control mode of the port.
When the operating mode is 100Mbit/s full duplex, one of the following flow control modes can be used

Question72: The scope of management of OMSn is the path from the input optical port on the multiplexer unit of the sending site to the output optical port on the multiplexer unit of the receiving site, called the optical multiplexing segment (OMS) path.

Question73: Which of the following is not the northbound interface provided by the U2000?

Question74: The OPC board is an optical-layer platform board that must work with pluggable modules.

Question75: When the SNCP ring consisting of four Optis OSN 2500 devices has a rate of 25 Gbt/s, the network's service answer stars can carry up to ()2Mt/s Signal.

Question76: Which of the following statements about ODUk_PM_BDI is correct?

Question77: The device IP address of the gateway element and the non-gateway element must be set in the same network segment.

Question78: An unprotected chain consists of four net elements; ME1, NE2, NE3 and NE4.
Create an end-to-end VC4 path NE1-NE4 and add NE5 between NE2 and NE3 for capacity expansion.
The original configuration remains unchanged and no services are configured on the NE5.
In this case, the unprotected chain becomes NE1-NE2-NE5NE3-NE4, how many VC4 paths can be searched?

Question79: When an OTU board works with an OLP board, the optical power difference cannot be used as a trigger condition for intra-board 1+1 protection switching.

Question80: Which of the following statements about OTN advantages is false?

Question81: What are the basic features of the U2000? Multiple Choices

Question82: After configuring PDH on a per-net element basis, the full trace cannot be searched. Which of the following is a possible cause? (Multiple choice)

Question83: If a network port that supports autonegotiation is connected to a network port that does not support autonegotiation, you can interconnect in both half-duplex and full-duplex modes.

Question84: When the low-level resources of the device are insufficient, which of the following measures can be taken?
(Multiple choice).

Question85: When configuring LMSP, there are two switching modes: single-ended switching and double-ended switching. Single-ended switching does not require the protection protocol to be enabled.

Question86: Which of the following boards can directly receive client-side signals?

Question87: Which of the following are prerequisites for self-healing networks?

Question88: The 1510nm optical monitoring channel can be effectively amplified after passing through EDFA.

Question89: Which of the following local maintenance endpoints can be used to manage MSTP devices?

Question90: The rate of SF64 and SL64 boards is STM54. Therefore, the two plates can be interconnected.

Question91: MSP is a network-level protection scheme. MSF does not directly protect services, and MSP switching and recovery are not affected even if there is no service on the MSP ring.

Question92: Which of the following technologies is the main difference between an open DWDM system and an integrated DWDM system?

Question93: Which of the following bridges are used to forward data based on the MAC address and VLAN ID carried in the data?

Question94: Which of the following are communication quality alerts? (Multiple choice).

Question95: Which of the following is the functional unit that provides a high-speed signal interface and processes the corresponding signal?

Question96: Are the following statements regarding the definition of SDH correct?

Question97: Which of the following service types are supported by MS-OTN devices?

Question98: Which of the following ITLI-T recommendations define the OTN frame structure?

Question99: Which factors determine the optical signal-to-noise ratio (OSNR) of the receiving end to a certain extent After the signal transmission in the WOM system is transmitted over a certain distance, the "oSNR" of the receiving end of the optical signal-to-noise ratio is reduced to a certain extent. Which of the following is the main cause?

Question100: Which of the following is not a non-linear effect?

Question101: Which of the following statements regarding multiplexing partial remote False indication (MS-REI) is correct?
(1) B2 bytes indicate the transmission channel.
(2) The M1 byte represents the transmission channel
(3) THE MS-REl is sent from the receiver to the source.
(4) MS-REI is transmitted from the source to the receiver.
(5) Indicates the number of bit Falses detected by the receiver after receiving the MS signal.

Question102: Which of the following statements about the EFS4 board are correct? (Multiple choice).

Question103: Which of the following statements about the MD02 board is incorrect?

Question104: Which of the following statements about overhead bytes is incorrect?

Question105: If you group SNCP services with the same source, sink, or route, you can increase the SNCP switching speed

Question106: The last 256 columns in the OTN frame structure are the FEC regions for forward False correction.

Question107: Some SNCP protection inversion conditions are default, such as AU-AIS and TU-AIS. Other conditions are optional, such as HP-TIM and HP-SLM. Optional conditions can be flexibly set according to the level of the costume.

Question108: Which of the following is the default WTR time for MSP switching?

Question109: TU-AIS is often encountered during network maintenance. Which of the following alerts can trigger a TU-AIS alert? (Multiple choice).

Question110: The dual fiber ring topology consisting of three network elements is arranged in counterclockwise order as the service between A, B and C A and C occupies the first VC-48 on the short path VC-12 time slots, B and C of the same service also occupy the 48th of the first VC-4 on the short path VC-12 time slots

Question111: Which of the following can be configured as the monitoring time for network element performance events?

Question112: Which of the following statements about an Ethernet switch is incorrect?

Question113: Transmitting test frames affects services.

Question114: During service configuration, which of the following service levels cannot be selected?